Posts for OmnipotentEntity

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Sort of a quick primer on curved space: http://scottburns.us/vision-in-curved-space/
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HappyLee wrote:
But I don't blame you, for you've solved those with a bot. What's really hard is to solve those with pure imagination and reasoning, which is exactly what Mars608 did, so that's why I think he deserves some credits.
This comes off as somewhat snide and minimizes MrWint's work. I recognize that this may not be your intention, and I don't want to speak for MrWint, but I would personally feel a bit insulted if this were directed at me.
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Here's something I found interesting. Tetration is repeated exponentiation. So 4x is equal to xxxx. Between e-e and e1/e if you take the limit as n->infinity nx converges to a value, specifically W(-ln x)/- ln x, where W is the Lambert W function. What is the area under this curve?
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Something I saw on math.se and I was tooling around with it, and I figured I'd let you guys try it as well. Let w be a 2mth primitive root of unity. Is it the case that the following sequence has a period of 2m for almost all initial values? xn+2 = (w4xn-(w3+w2)xn+1-wxnxn+1) / (-w-(w3+1)xn+w2xn+1)
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Just following up on why z^n is multivalued for non-integer n. Let's say I have a complex number z = a + bi We can represent this in polar form as well z = r exp(i theta) This works because of euler's formula exp(i theta) = cos(theta) + i sin(theta) So if we have a complex number (a + bi) then we can find the radius and angle using r = sqrt(a^2 + b^2) and theta = atan2(b, a). But exp(i theta) is periodic with a period of 2pi! This means that r exp(i theta) = r exp(i (theta + 2n pi) ) where n is an integer. What happens when we raise this value to a power? (r exp(i theta))^k = r^k (exp(i theta))^k Can we bring the k into the exp? Well, let's assume k is an integer. exp(i theta)^k = exp(i (2n pi + theta))^k exp(i k theta) = exp(i (2kn pi + theta)) Because 2kn pi is a multiple of 2pi, we're still good, and we haven't "split" this number into multiple copies. But if k isn't an integer, let's say it's 3/2, then 2kn pi is no longer necessarily a multiple of 2 pi, it could be 3 pi if n = 1, for instance. If k is rational, then only a finite number of copies appear, this is because after long enough you'll start landing on the equivalent values again. For example, if k is 3/2 then if n = 1 you get 3 pi, n = 2 gives 6 pi, and then n = 3 gives 9 pi, which is the same as 3 pi under modulo 2 pi. So for k = 3/2 you only get 2 copies. Whereas if k = 3/109 you'll get many more. If k is irrational, then an infinite number of copies appear. This all has to do with the multivalued character of the complex logarithm. Because non-integer exponentiation is defined in terms of the logarithm. a^b = exp(log(a^b)) = exp(b log(a))
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Because z^n is multivalued for non-integer n. While it is true that cos(nx) + i sin(nx) is one of the values, there can be other values. For more information look into the roots of unity.
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Yes. In particular, General Relatively achieves this as a consequence of using a symmetric tensor to describe the gravitational potential. (As this construction allows for general covariance.) If you're curious to the math behind General Relativity I recommend Leonard Susskind's lectures: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JRZgW1YjCKk&list=PLXLSbKIMm0kh6XsMSCEMnM02kEoW_8x-f
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It's because the kinetic energy is the integral of force over distance, rather than over time as you seem to be intuitively expecting.
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Let's look at it the other way: if sqrt(t) is an integer, that means its prime factorization must contain an even number of copies of each prime. So if sqrt(t) is not an integer, at least one prime must occur with an odd number of copies. So if sqrt(t) is not an integer, there is a prime p such that p^(2k-1) divides t, but p^(2k) doesn't. (Namely, one of the primes with an odd number of copies.)
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Oh ok! I get it then. The next number in the series is 4758. The series is just the natural numbers, and you're just omitting numbers at random so it's not too obvious. ;P
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You forgot 6.
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If n > 0, 2^n ends with the following values indexed on mod 4. 6, 2, 4, 8 Primes are odd so they are either 1 mod 4 or 3 mod 4 (disregarding 2), which implies 2^p ends with either 2 or 8, and 2^(p-1) will end with 6 or 4 respectively. 2^p - 1 ends with either 1 or 7. 1 * 6= 6 7 * 4 = 28 For 28 we have to ensure that the 10s digit is locked as well. If n > 1, the last TWO digits of 2^n end with the following values indexed mod 20: 76, 52, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 28, 56, 12, 24, 48, 96, 92, 84, 68, 36, 72, 44, 88 Of these, the following are some of the values we're interested in, as they are also 3 mod 4: 8, 28, 48, 68, 88 And these are the others, as they are 2 mod 4: 4, 64, 24, 84, 44 Subtracting one from the first list and multiplying pairwise we get: 28, 1728, 1128, 5628, 3828 Which are all 28 mod 100. So in other words, numbers constructed from any number of the form (2^n - 1)*2^(n-1) with n as an odd whole number will "look like" a perfect number from the 6/28 test.
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Remember how you originally defined the expression. You began with an initial value and then found an expression that it was equal to and iterated it. The initial value is important to the expression and governs what the expression evaluates to. So because it's missing from your expression it's not well-defined. A well defined version of the same expression would be: a_0 = 1 a_n+1 = 2/(3-a_n) lim n->infinity(a_n) = ? Without the a_0 initial condition then you're left with an expression that cannot be evaluated because it's not complete.
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Even if we assume that the ping pong balls wouldn't melt, because of the crazy amount of photons interacting at "deep gamma" emission levels of BB radiation I wouldn't expect Brownian behavior to dominate. We see Brownian motion in collision between objects where the momentum is sufficiently large compared to the mass. And even at an energy of 500MeV, photons only carry about a vanishingly small amount of momentum compared to a ping pong ball's mass, which is about 10^27 MeV/c^2.
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x = 2/(3-x) 3x - x^2 = 2 x^2 - 3x + 2 = 0 (x - 1) (x - 2) = 0 x = 1 or x = 2 Both values satisfy the expression, but that doesn't mean they are equal.
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Because the balls are traveling so slowly and they have so little momentum it's entirely possible that they will not collide at all if a repulsive 1/r^3 term is introduced. However, I don't believe two diamagnets will repel each other because their magnetism is only induced. If the room is considered to be "very large" and the room and balls are in thermal equilibrium then the affect from the black body radiation of the room can be shown to be isotropic save for where the room is "shadowed" by the other ball. However, in that case the radiation from the other ball is pushing the two apart. But that effect doesn't quite cancel out the affect of the shadow. This effect is because the view factor of two spheres is less than the view factor of a sphere and a coaxial disc (which the shadow can be modeled as). So that results in a net attractive force. (Assuming the surface is diffuse and grey, which it's not of course...) However, if the surface of the container and the balls were assumed to be at or very close to 0K then there's no problem. Gravity would again easily dominate.
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For the record. Nitrocellulose is definitely diamagnetic. I have an estimate of -212.66 ≤ Xd (μemu/mol) ≤ -57.5 based on Pascal Constants. Can you give a reference to that paper Bobo?
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I haven't been able to reproduce the game on my flash cart. I get mostly e5 for the first turn, but for the second turn I get a lot of Nc6, some Qf6, very few d5, and one f6. This is after a couple of hundred attempts over an hour or so. So this path, if possible on a cart, is very unlikely. f5 is a rather bad move, so I guess it's not surprising that the engine almost never chooses it.
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No. It's super easy. To find the norm of any n-dimensional vector just collapse n-dimensional space down to two dimensions. One of which is in the direction of one of the axes, and the other dimension in the direction of the vector perpendicular to the chosen axis. Let's take a specific example: (4, 5, 1, 2), and a specific axis (the third). We now know that the length of this vector is sqrt(1^2 + x^2) where x^2 is the distance along the vector pointing in the (4, 5, 2) direction. This vector is in fact (4, 5, 2) itself. Now we can just simply repeat, let's select the 2nd direction so we have (4, 5, 2) being split into 5 and (4, 2) with length sqrt(5^2 + y^2), and again (4, 2) can be split into 4 and 2 with length sqrt(4^2 + 2^2). Now we know y = sqrt(4^2 + 2^2) so x is sqrt(5^2 + sqrt(4^2 + 2^2)^2) or just sqrt(5^2 + 4^2 + 2^2). And finally the total lengthis sqrt(1^2 + sqrt(5^2 + 4^2 + 2^2)^2) or sqrt(1^2 + 5^2 + 4^2 + 2^2). You can generalize this easily using more formal language. But it's easy to "see" that this problem can be broken down into steps like this, and because the choice of axes is arbitrary we can simplify any vector into a 2D space of our choosing.
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BrunoVisnadi wrote:
It's interesting to think about it, as I'm pretty sure if you remove any sequence of numbers, it will also converge. I wonder what the limit will be if, for instance, we remove only the terms that have a ''1234567890''.
Because this is an interesting problem, you might be dismayed to find that someone has already found a fast method for calculating these values to high precision. For the string "1234567890" for instance, the answer is approximately: 23025850922.0270354982950673268734899111435414556239773730714362058360\ 911501346900226904036846956235736570665999 If you're interested in the technical details, here is the paper: http://eprints.maths.ox.ac.uk/1106/1/NA-06-17.pdf
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Then you can replace zed with any of the following: b, c, g, p, t, v d can't be used because it's the differential, e can't be used because we're using it as a constant. t might work better because it's a more often used variable, and z generally denotes a complex number, which isn't strictly required in this context.
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If you took the time to talk to the person wearing the shirt they'd have probably told you that it's a limerick. The Integral z squared dz From one to the cube root of three times the cosine of three pi over nine is the log of the cube root of e.
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That's a good one Warp. Let's talk about matrix eigenvalue decomposition! So it is possible to represent both the Fibonnaci and Lucas recurrence relation as the same matrix with different initial conditions. This is to say, if you have a state vector (Fn-1, Fn) you can multiply it by a matrix to get the next state vector (Fn, Fn + 1) Our initial vector for Fibonacci numbers is (0, 1). For Lucas numbers it's (2, 1). Note: It seems that the limit you're computing is Ln / Fn+1 according to the canonical numbering. So the formula for the vector containing the (n-1)th and nth Fibonacci number is (0, 1) * ( ( 0, 1 ), ( 1, 1) )n But computing the nth power of a matrix is hard. So we need to find a better way. To begin, the matrix is simply:
A = ( ( 0, 1 ),
      ( 1, 1) )
Next, we calculate the eigenvalues of this matrix: ( ( 0-y, 1 ), ( 1, 1-y) ) (1-y)(-y) - 1 = 0 y2 - y - 1 = 0 y1 = (1 + sqrt(5))/2 y2 = (1 - sqrt(5))/2 (Note: this is the underlying mathematical reason that both the Fibonacci and Lucas sequence ratios approach the golden ratio as n goes to infinity.) So now that we have the eigenvalues we want to change the representation of the matrix from A into Q Y Q-1, where Y is just the matrix with the eigenvalues down the diagonal. We want to do this because then we can raise this to the nth power easily. (An is hard to calculate because it means lots of matrix multiplication. On the other hand, (Q Y Q-1)n is easy because the Q-1 and Q cancel and we're left with Q Yn Q-1. Because Y is a diagonal matrix, it is simple to calculate the nth power of, you just compute the nth power of each diagonal member.) It can be shown with a proof that Q must be the eigenvectors of A, but I'll omit that for brevity. Maybe this can be my challenge to you. So to calculate the eigenvectors of A we just solve the system (A - yI) v = 0 for v. I'll spare the calculations because they're pretty much trivial we get: v1 = (-y2, 1) v2 = (-y1, 1) So Q becomes: ( ( -y2, -y1 ), ( 1, 1) ) And Q-1 is computed just by taking the inverse of Q: ( ( 1/sqrt(5), (1 + sqrt(5))/(2 sqrt(5)) ), ( -(1/sqrt(5)), (-1 + sqrt(5))/(2 sqrt(5)) ) ) Now we can use this to find an explicit formula for the nth Fibonacci (and Lucas) number. It's just: (0, 1) Q Yn Q-1 And because we just care about a single value we can simplify it to a single formula: (-(1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^n + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^n)/sqrt(5) Which is the famous explicit formula for the Fibonacci sequence. Similarly you can use the initial vector for the Lucas sequence to find the explicit formula for that. It is: -2 + (1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^n + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^n Because the limit you're looking for is Ln / Fn+1 we have: (-2 + (1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^n + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^n) / ((-(1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^(n+1) + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^(n+1))/sqrt(5)) Which is messy looking but as n approaches infinity is: 1/2 ( 5 - sqrt(5) ) For Ln / Fn the formula is: (-2 + (1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^n + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^n) / ((-(1/2 (1 - sqrt(5)))^n + (1/2 (1 + sqrt(5)))^n)/sqrt(5)) And the limit is simply: sqrt(5) Which is a lot nicer. :)
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This was a problem from my Calc 2 course in 2002: If you take the harmonic series and remove only the terms that contain a 9 will the series converge or diverge? Prove it. If you want to cheat, this series is known as the Kempner series.
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Here's the method I used to solve the integral: f(a) = integral e^(-a^2 x^2)/(x^2+1) dx f'(a) = integral -2a x^2 e^(-a^2 x^2)/(x^2+1) dx = integral -2a (x^2 + 1 - 1) e^(-a^2 x^2)/(x^2+1) dx = integral -2a e^(-a^2 x^2) dx + integral 2a e^(-a^2 x^2)/(x^2+1) dx f'(a) = -2sqrt(pi) + 2a f(a) This is just a linear non-homogenous first-order ODE. With solution: f(a) = pi e^(a^2) (-erf(a) + C) Because f(0) = pi we get C = 1 and 1 - erf(a) = erfc(a) so f(a) = pi e^(a^2) erfc(a)
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