Posts for FractalFusion


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g0goTBC wrote:
Inb4 someone goes to fix the Wikipedia page before this movie gets judged. This would be the ultimate troll.
No worries, we can always pull up revision links, which are permanent. (The relevant text is below the image just under the header titled "Gameplay".)
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MESHUGGAH wrote:
What a weird ending. There is a score counter and you went for "first 2048 tile" as an ending point?
That is exactly the goal of 2048. To get to the 2048 tile.
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The Riddler Express problem in my previous post was designed to have a simple solution (that's exactly why it is Express and not Classic): Answer: Only one weighing required, proves the weight of the 11kg globe. Reasoning: Put 1 2 3 4 on one side and 11 on the other. Four globes on one side weigh a minimum of 10kg. This confirms the lone globe on the other side to be 11kg, since it's the only globe that is possibly heavier than four globes. In other news: I mentioned in my previous post that I couldn't find any N that had more than two maximal sequences up to N=20000. I managed to find a proof that there is indeed no such N. The general idea is that it is impossible to have three or more N/m values in a gap, while not having any value in a better gap. This confirms that to completely solve the problem of all maximal sequences for N only requires checking three values: 1) m=floor(N/phi) 2) m=ceiling(N/phi) 3) If (1) is maximal: m=floor(N/phi)-1; if (2) is maximal: m=ceiling(N/phi)+1 I'll try to find some time in the next few days to write out the proof.
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CoolHandMike wrote:
Uzebox huh? Long time no see. Could you explain how this game works? All I see are numbers rapidly changing.
It's based on a flash game that went viral in 2014. The best way to learn how it works is to play it here: https://play2048.co/
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720p encode with the top screen (gameplay) being the largest element of the video. Also 60fps: Link to video The bottom screen is 1/4 size in the bottom left corner. A zoomed-in element showing the stored item is placed in the top left corner.
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It looks like most of us found intuitively that the second last number (denoted m from now on) has to be close to N/phi. (Here I'm thinking about the sequence backwards from (N, m, ...) , until you get to a term which is greater than or equal to the previous term.) Indeed, as p4wn3r showed, a maximal sequence is achieved either by m=floor(N/phi) or m=ceiling(N/phi). The length of a sequence backwards from (N, m, ...) is based on tracing p4wn3r's fixed-point diagram: but tracing it backwards starting from x=N/m (going outwards) until the x value is less than or equal to 1. Note that it is not actually possible for floor(N/phi) and ceiling(N/phi) to both be maximal sequences for the same N; by alternation, one has even length and the other has odd length. What I found very curious is that, from my calculations, most N have a unique maximal sequence, but for some N, there are actually two maximal sequences. I wasn't able to find any N that had more than two maximal sequences so I'm not sure if they exist (I checked up to N=20000 or so). No, this is not acknowledged anywhere in Riddler's solution, not even in the PDF on the page that gives a list of maximal sequences up to N=200. There appear to be an infinite number of them but the first few with two maximal sequences as far as I can remember are N=6, 15, 32, 35, ... Considering the Fibonacci fractions 1/1, 2/1, 3/2, 5/3, 8/5, ... mark the boundaries for which values closer to phi give longer sequences, some values of N have two values m1 and m2 where N/m1 and N/m2 both fit in the same "gap". For example, for N=35: 35/23=1.5217... 35/22=1.5909... Both conveniently fit in the gap between 3/2=1.5 (exclusive) and 8/5=1.6 (inclusive). This gives the two maximal backward sequences (35, 23, 12, 11, 1, 10) and (35, 22, 13, 9, 4, 5). You can check that 35/21=1.6666... is exactly 5/3, so it fits in the gap from 2/1=2 (exclusive) to 5/3=1.6666... (inclusive), a worse gap than 3/2 to 8/5. I didn't think about it too much, so perhaps there is a proof that an infinite number of N have two maximal sequences, and/or a proof that there is no value of N with more than two maximal sequences, but I probably won't come back to that anymore. ---- As a quick problem, I will present the newest Riddler Express (I will just copy and paste the description): You have a case with 11 golden globes, weighing 1 kilogram, 2 kg and so on, up to 11 kg. And you know exactly which globe is which. You have arranged to sell one of the globes to a queen. She has heard tales of these orbs, and knows for a fact that they have masses from 1 kg to 11 kg. However, she doesn’t know which is which and will not simply take your word for it. She will purchase a globe if you can demonstrate its weight. The queen has a balancing scale with two plates, one on each side. It shows whether the total weight on either plate is equal or, if not, which side is heavier. The queen can clearly see which globes you place on which plate. However, if at any point the mass on either side exceeds 11 kg, the scale will break and the queen will refuse to buy from you. The queen is in a hurry for her next appointment, so time is limited. What is the fewest number of weighings by which you can prove the weight of at least one globe? Which globe is it? Answer: Only one weighing required, proves the weight of the 11kg globe. Reasoning: Put 1 2 3 4 on one side and 11 on the other. Four globes on one side weigh a minimum of 10kg. This confirms the lone globe on the other side to be 11kg, since it's the only globe that is possibly heavier than four globes.
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This week's Riddler Classic is about Fibonacci-like sequences (re-explained here as follows): Consider finite sequences of positive integers where, except for the first two terms, each term is the sum of the two terms before it. For example, the Fibonacci sequence ending at 13: (1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13). Or the Lucas sequence ending at 7: (2, 1, 3, 4, 7). We are looking for such sequences of maximum length ("maximal sequences") ending in a specific number. For example, for 7, there are some such sequences terminating in 7, such as (4,3,7), (1,3,4,7), (2,1,3,4,7), etc. The maximal sequence ending in 7 is (2,1,3,4,7). What is the maximal sequence ending in 81? What about for 179? In general, given a positive integer n, how do we find such maximal sequence(s) ending in n?
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I remember hearing that this game having some interesting physics for a TAS. It makes for a rather difficult-to-make TAS though (as can be judged from the rerecord count which is almost 200000). This game could have used some better music.
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I didn't mention this, but it should be clear (p4wn3r proved it, and there are many other ways to prove it as well) that the angles have to divide the interval evenly. So we are finding the n that maximizes (a*cos(pi/(2n)))^n. Or equivalently, by taking logs, the n that maximizes n*ln(a*cos(pi/2n)). If we treat n as a real number variable, it turns out that the second derivative of this function is precisely (-pi^2/4)*sec^2(pi/(2n)) which is always negative when n>1, and so n*ln(a*cos(pi/2n)) is always concave down (when n>1) so if there is a maximum to (a*cos(pi/(2n)))^n, the function must increase to this maximum (when n>1) and decrease after that. So for a=0.99 it suffices to check n=10, n=11 and n=12 which give (0.99*cos(pi/(2n)))^n = 0.799008..., 0.800042..., and 0.799549, respectively. This confirms that the function is maximized when n=11 and the maximum fraction of light is 0.800042...
Bobo the King wrote:
Why does my intuitive answer (light lost to inefficiency equals light lost to polarization) closely match the exact answer (a transcendental equation based on the derivative of the function)?
Take the derivative equation you wrote above: ln[a*cos(pi/2n)] + pi/2n*tan(pi/2n) = 0, and assume n is large. (We'll assume that we need to find "a" as a function of n.) Set x=pi/2n so we have ln(a*cos(x))+x*tan(x)=0, where x is small. Now it turns out that x*tan(x)≈-2*ln(cos(x)); this is because x*tan(x) = x(x+O(x^3)) = x^2+O(x^4), whereas -2*ln(cos(x)) = -2*ln(1- x^2/2 +O(x^4)) = -2(-x^2/2 +O(x^4)) = x^2+O(x^4). So 2*ln(cos(x))+x*tan(x)≈0 and so ln(cos^2(x))+x*tan(x)≈0. So we can make a≈cos(x), or in other words, a≈cos(pi/2n). Actually I wasn't sure about your intuitive answer since it wasn't so intuitive to me. But it works out somehow! (at least as an approximation)
Bobo the King wrote:
(By the way, light intensity is proportional to the cosine squared, but whatever. Don't learn your physics from mathematicians.)
Yes, that's true. Mathematicians don't always know what they are talking about. Though I'm sure someone would have let Riddler know about Malus's Law at some point; we'll see when the Riddler solutions come out on Friday.
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p4wn3r wrote:
This problem is pretty hard to solve by hand, but there's a way to solve it using freely available software and math tables. For which natural numbers n is the sum of the first n perfect squares also a perfect square?
Just the answer: n=1 and n=24 only. This is the Cannonball Problem (link here), whose results are already known for over 100 years. Now before p4wn3r starts talking about elliptic curves, I would like to mention that there are elementary proofs. For example, this proof by Anglin (pdf can be downloaded here for those who are interested). ---- This week's Riddler Classic is an interesting geometric problem. I'll restate it here as follows: You have a light source that is polarized in the vertical direction, and an unlimited number of polarizers which can be oriented at any rotation angle. The direction can be changed by passing the light through polarizers; however, only the component of light that is in that direction of the polarizer will pass through. Ex: If the polarizer is vertical, all light will pass through. If it is horizontal, no light will pass through. If it is at a 45-degree angle, 1/sqrt(2) of the light will pass through. Now it is possible to use the polarizers to re-orient the polarity of the light in the horizontal direction, but at a cost. Ex: If two polarizers are used, the best that can be done is half of the original light (this diagram is from the Riddler page): Of course, with an unlimited number of polarizers, you could just use an arbitrarily large number of polarizers to make a "circular turn" to orient the polarity of the light horizontally while keeping a fraction of the light that is arbitrarily close to 1. This is where Riddler Classic throws a twist: each polarizer is only 99% effective. So, only 0.99 of the light that is supposed to pass through each polarizer actually passes through. With this in mind, what number of polarizers should be used to orient the polarity of the light horizontally while keeping the largest possible fraction of light? And what is the largest possible fraction? (You may wish to use WolframAlpha to help out with this.)
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warmCabin, are you still working on improving this TAS? Just wondering.
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720p60 encode: Link to video Note: The actual time of the movie should be 20:28.33 (73821 frames). The rest is just blank input. ---- The hack is quite interesting (custom music, bosses are not just MM2 bosses only). However, I'm hoping someone will eventually make a TAS of Rockman 6 Unique Harassment (or Rockman 6 UH), by the same author. Rockman 6 UH is in my opinion one of the better post-RM4MI hacks and I'd like to see how the most useful speed mechanics (of which there are a few) are used throughout the hack. By the way, I think it's nice that someone other than Baddap1 is making TASes of Mega Man hacks for once.
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p4wn3r wrote:
For fun: If S is an empty set, show that inf S = +infinity, and sup S = -infinity Is there a non-empty subset S of the reals such that inf S > sup S?
Because S is empty, every extended real number is a lower bound of S, and the largest of them is +∞ and so inf S = +∞. Likewise, every extended real number is an upper bound of S, and the smallest of them is -∞ and so sup S = -∞. Of course there is no non-empty subset S of the reals such that inf S > sup S: given a real number b in S, inf S ≤ b ≤ sup S.
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I assume your actual question is why is the side HC the harmonic mean HM. (AM and GM are obvious.) There is no need to find or use side HG in the diagram. Triangles OGC and GHC are similar so GM/AM = HC/GM ---> HC = GM2/AM = (ab) / ((a+b)/2) = 2ab / (a+b), which is the harmonic mean.
Arcorann wrote:
A secret society would like to poll their 60 members on some yes/no question. They are only interested in the parity of the number of yes votes. However, they will only allow a given pollster to interview 50 members, and each pollster may only report back a number between 0 and 50 inclusive. It is believed that up to one pollster may lie or make a mistake in reporting. * Find the smallest number of pollsters required (easy).
I can't answer the other questions as I don't understand what they are asking. However, for this, it seems the answer is 18: Group the 60 members in 6 groups of 10: A,B,C,D,E,F. Assign three pollsters each for six blocks as follows: ABCDE (x3), ABCDF (x3), ABCEF (x3), ABDEF (x3), ACDEF (x3), BCDEF (x3). You need to do x3 for each block to get the correct value. Then add up the results (# of yes votes) of the correct values for the six blocks and divide by 5 to get the total number of yes votes, and therefore the correct parity. (I don't know if the answer is changed just by only being interested in the parity.)
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I remember using torrents a few times in the oldest days (back in 2005 or something). I have not used torrents in over 15 years. Even back in 2007 I would rather play back the movie file in emulator. These days, unless I am planning to TAS the game that I'm watching, I just use youtube-dl to download it from Youtube, or just watch on Youtube if it's very short.
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Dacicus wrote:
Here is a counting exercise that requires some basic musical knowledge*: How many distinct rhythms are possible in one measure of 4/4 time if you are limited to using whole, half, quarter, and eighth notes or rests and any number of ties among them? The rhythm must be contained entirely within the measure, so ties across bar lines are not allowed.
This is equivalent to finding sequences of length 8 consisting of symbols R (8th rest), N (new 8th note) and T (tied 8th note) where T is only permitted if the previous symbol is N or T (*). For length 0, an empty sequence is permitted, and for length 1, there are two sequences: R and N (a sequence cannot begin with T). For k≥2, a sequence of length k satisfying (*) is normally formed by taking a sequence of length k-1 satisfying (*) and adding R, N or T to the end (**). However, since T is not permitted after R, we would need to subtract the sequences in (**) that end in RT; these are precisely sequences of length k-2 satisfying (*) and adding RT to the end. So if we let an denote the number of sequences of length n satisfying (*), the recursive formula is: a0=1 a1=2 an = 3an-1 - an-2 (for n≥2) Using this formula we get a0=1, a1=2, a2=5, a3=13, a4=34, a5=89, a6=233, a7=610, a8=1597. So there are 1597 such rhythms. Note that this is the sequence of odd-indexed Fibonacci numbers. P.S. The generating function is (1-x)/(1-3x+x2). Using partial fractions and then writing out the series gives the xn coefficient: since the second term goes to 0 and is always positive. So you can just get the number of such rhythms of length n by evaluating the first term and rounding up to the next integer. P.P.S. The sequence is OEIS A001519 (offset by 1 index), and the page mentions that this sequence can be thought of as "Number of musical compositions of Rhythm-music over a time period of n-1 units." Edit: Fixed an error in the image.
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Dacicus wrote:
Here is a counting exercise that requires some basic musical knowledge*: How many distinct rhythms are possible in one measure of 4/4 time if you are limited to using whole, half, quarter, and eighth notes or rests and any number of ties among them? The rhythm must be contained entirely within the measure, so ties across bar lines are not allowed. * There are numerous music theory tutorials online for those who do not know what the terms mean but want to learn.
Just for clarification: Is a tie between two eighth notes equivalent to a quarter note, or are they distinct? (similarly for other ties of two or more notes)
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Good job on 3-3. I wonder if HappyLee will see this and find a way to bypass the coins in 5-3 anyway.
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I'm not sure using joypad.get() in order to joypad.set() something else works as a rebinding option. (If I ever tried something like that in the past, I'm pretty sure it has never worked for me.) If all you want to do is rebind keyboard keys so that pressing them operates the touch screen, use input.get() to get which keyboard keys are pressed, then calculate how the touch screen should be operated and joypad.set() that.
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Aardvark64 wrote:
Given a function that gives evenly distributed random real values between 0 and 1, let's call it R(), the probability distribution of sqrt(R()) is exactly the same as the probability distribution of max(R(), R()).
I assume by R(), you are indicating a random variable (uniform distribution on [0,1]). Then the above statement can be proved by showing that their cumulative distribution functions (CDFs) are the same. Let F(x) be the CDF of sqrt(R()), and G(x) be the CDF of max(R(),R()). Let b be any number in [0,1]. Then: F(b) = Pr( sqrt(R())≤b ) = Pr( R()≤b2 ) = b2 and G(b) = Pr( max(R(),R())≤b ) = Pr( R()≤b and R()≤b ) = (b)(b) = b2 It is obvious that both F(x) and G(x) are zero when x<0 and one when x>1. So then, since F(x) = G(x), the probability distributions of sqrt(R()) and max(R(), R()) are the same. QED Note: The probability function is just the derivative of the CDF: F'(b)=G'(b)=2b when b is in [0,1], and zero everywhere else.
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Here's a very quick encode I made (720p60) with all bonus scenes from Round 3~79 cut. This reduces the encode to less than 15 minutes! Also I included an input display in the bottom right corner. Link to video
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f(x) can just be thought of as the sum of the distance from (x+2,0) to (0,3) and the distance from (x+2,0) to (6,-5), as shown in the diagram below. Based on the triangle inequality, to minimize the sum of the two distances, (x+2,0) must be collinear with (0,3) and (6,-5), giving two similar triangles. Splitting 6 in the ratio of 3:5 gives 9/4:15/4. So x+2=9/4, and so x=1/4 minimizes f(x).
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I personally have never found any Family Feud TAS "funny" (that's not really the point of a TAS now is it) but that's just me. So they are all equal to me. I cannot understand how so many in this topic are pretending that Family Feud TASes can be "compared" or "improved". That notion sounds ridiculous.
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I did a test run of this game: http://tasvideos.org/userfiles/info/73498944014628346 Can be improved still. It's based off the best known speedrun ( https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_erk13SUuvw ) as well as the (prior to today) only known full TAS ( https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JHTLgZNsWak ). It's like 13 minutes faster. I also looked at nitsuja's old TAS. I did the first three dungeons somewhat faster as well.
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I watched this one too but it looks like an ending (if there was any in the first place) has been skipped or something? Whatever.