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Regarding cartridge SRAM swaps, I have an M3 DS real card for the DS, and managed to port my completed n+ save file from the DS and use it on the DesMuMe emulator. I did this after reading this topic, to see if it was possible. It is, and it's really easy to do as well.
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Beleive it or not, there are chinese TASers here. And they work just as hard and slack off just as much as everyone else.
Anyway, If I was going to make a website, I would outsource everything to free services and such so I wouldn't have to pay a cent.
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I did some more work on it, and I am now 2000 frames ahead.
EDIT: Nothing like a bit of accidental innuendo...
EDIT2: I am now about 50 seconds ahead of the current movie. Hopefully I can beat the current video by over a minute. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to speed up the moon level.
http://dehacked.2y.net/microstorage.php/info/1116750452/andymac%20Smart%20Ball%20f1.smv
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Watch the small only run of SMW then. Fire flower only is a very arbitary category. The cape is the fastest method of travel, that's the reason that everyone uses it.
Also, I must admit, test runs in general are not very entertaining.
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There is no "legit" way of unlocking the atari bonus levels. I know. I have completed the game on DS. You have to use the cheat code. There is no other way of unlocking those levels.
BTW, I use the cheat code before starting episode 1
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Sorry for the double post.
Here's a WIP.
That's the sixth episode complete. I also hexed in a different start, which unlocks the atari bonus levels before starting episode 1. If you see any improvements, tell me. n+ is a very synch robust game, so any improvements can be easily hexed in.
EDIT: edited the URL because it was broken
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I have an "unused desktop icons" folder on my desktop. Where all my desktop icons go to die. I don't give a shit how messy that gets, and it's easy enough to use too.
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I vote 2. 1 will get very annoying after a few stages, and for me personally be unwatchable. 3 is very arbitary in it's goals, but 2, maintains the fastest time possible tag, barring a major speed/entertainment tradeoff.
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Made a new proof, this one actually works.
For the sake of our argument let's assume that there are a finite amount of primes. and that the number of primes is t. and that pv is the vth prime.
Composite numbers can be expressed as prime factors, and the sum of all the reciprocals of all whole positive integers will therefore be:
(correct me if I made any mistakes here)
The sum in the brackets always converges, and is therefore finite, and there are a finite number of products (t terms). Therefore this series is finite, and our initial assumption must be untrue: that there are a finite number of primes. Therefore there must be an infinite number of primes.
EDIT: also, maybe for that physics question there is more than one solution. I wouldn't doubt it.
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Fabian wrote:
Bisqwit,
You're a strange dude
I'm going to have to agree with this. In a good way that is.
On a totally unrelated note, I'm getting this really funny feeling that Xkeeper is somehow satanic. No reason, just letting you all know.
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Not quite correct. The sum of the reciprocals of the even numbers, or the sum of the reciprocals of any set of multiples of a number, is just as divergent as the harmonic series.
oh whoops, got it confused with a series like: 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ect. I'm really just trying to confuse people with appalling grammar and incoherent sentences.
EDIT: still, there is the small issue of the sum of terms 1/(p^n) for any prime p, and whole n, which is convergent, for iterating n, but the sum of infinitely many of these could be divergent, corresponding to an infinite number of p, and if the remaining terms that are not of the form 1/(p^n) are a convergent series, then we have proven an infinite number of primes. However, I think the remaining terms would be divergent, and/or the sum of 1/(p^n) terms would be convergent, which would invalidate this theory.
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I have a shitty proof for this, but it works took 20 mins to solve.
The harmonic series is:
1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ...
if we remove all other terms form the series, and make it into a new series, we get
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/8 ...
then factorise out 1/2 we get
1/2 ( 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ...
leaving behind:
1/1 + 1/3 + 1/5 + 1/7 ...
I'm going to subtract n from the odd terms. so it makes it nice:
1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/8 ...
Basically I subtracted 1/2 from the first term, 1/12 from the second term, 1/30 from the next ect., making all of the denominators even.
wait a minute:
1/2 ( 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ...
so if we add all the components together we get:
n + 1/2( 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ...) + 1/2( 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ...)
or in other words, the harmonic series is the sum of it's two halves, plus a finite number. Oh wow, That must mean It's divergent
The growth of f(x) where
f(x)= 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 ... 1/x
Is no less ln(x). By definition ln(x) is the area under the graph y=1/x starting at 1. f(x) is an approximation of this.
For every term in f(x), say there is a box with width 1 and height 1/x so the area of each box is equal to that term. Term 1 represents a box (1,1),(2,0) or generally (x , 1/x),(x+1 , 0) the top left corner (x , 1/x) passes through the line y=1/x. Although this isn't a formal proof, you can say that the area of the series of boxes is larger than the area underneath y=1/x because it covers the entire area underneath the graph plus the area outside where the top right corner is. Therefore f(x) > ln (x), x!=0
Because the harmonic series is made of converging series (all terms where the denominator is even for example. add them up, you will get a finite number), it must be made on an infinite number of converging series in order to diverge. for every converging series, there is a starting number (1/p) where p is prime, and yeh, you get the drift.
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"There can't be an infinite number of changes before this one"
What does that even mean? maybe if you talked with some sense, maybe someone would see your infallable logic
EDIT2: I am now about 50 seconds ahead of the current movie. Hopefully I can beat the current video by over a minute. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to speed up the moon level.
http://dehacked.2y.net/microstorage.php/info/1116750452/andymac%20Smart%20Ball%20f1.smv
(correct me if I made any mistakes here)
The sum in the brackets always converges, and is therefore finite, and there are a finite number of products (t terms). Therefore this series is finite, and our initial assumption must be untrue: that there are a finite number of primes. Therefore there must be an infinite number of primes.
EDIT: also, maybe for that physics question there is more than one solution. I wouldn't doubt it.